... when I was answering these MBE's the distinction escaped me. The first is from Adaptibar, the second from BarBri. Put your Real Property hat on. (Note: These are summaries of the essential facts.)
Seller properly transfers valid title to a piece of property in joint-bank-account-holder-B's name, for adequate consideration, to joint-bank-account-holder-A who properly accepts for B because B is out of the country. Joint-bank-account-holder-A hands Seller the cash. A then discovers that B had been killed a week before the transaction. B's will leaves all property to Church. No statute dealing with conveyances to dead people. Who has title?
C: Seller - free and clear
D: Seller - w/lien for purchase price
On Jan 15, Seller properly transfers valid title to a piece of property in Buyer's name, for adequate consideration, to Buyer's authorized Agent who properly accepts for Buyer because Buyer is out of the country. Agent hands Seller the cash. Agent then discovers that Buyer had been killed on Jan 14. Buyer's will leaves all property to Niece. Who has title?
A: Niece - b/c Agent holds in constructive trust
B: Niece - via equitable conversion
C: Seller - b/c deed to dead person is void
D: Seller - b/c risk of loss is on buyer
Maybe I was just reading too fast when I was answering them because I see it now. And I agree (and I'm sure they'll be happy to know that!) But for a minute there I was busy comparing sources.
Answers in the comments.